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CFA Program — Economics
36 free practice questions with full explanations.
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Start freeQuestion 1
GDP calculated using the expenditure approach is the sum of which components?
- A) Consumption, Investment, Government Spending, and Net Exports
- B) Wages, Rent, Interest, and Profit
- C) Consumption and Investment only
- D) Total imports minus total exports
Show answer & explanation
Correct answer: A) Consumption, Investment, Government Spending, and Net Exports
The expenditure approach to GDP sums consumption (C), investment (I), government spending (G), and net exports (exports minus imports): GDP = C + I + G + (X - M).
Question 2
If the price elasticity of demand for a good is 0.5, the demand for that good is best described as:
- A) Perfectly elastic
- B) Elastic
- C) Inelastic
- D) Perfectly inelastic
Show answer & explanation
Correct answer: C) Inelastic
A price elasticity of demand with an absolute value less than 1 indicates inelastic demand, meaning quantity demanded changes proportionally less than price.
Question 3
In a perfectly competitive market, a firm's demand curve is:
- A) Downward sloping and steep
- B) Horizontal at the market price
- C) Upward sloping
- D) Identical to the market demand curve
Show answer & explanation
Correct answer: B) Horizontal at the market price
In perfect competition, individual firms are price takers, facing a perfectly elastic (horizontal) demand curve at the prevailing market price, since they cannot influence price by changing output.
Question 4
Which of the following would most likely cause a rightward shift in the aggregate demand curve?
- A) An increase in interest rates
- B) A decrease in government spending
- C) An increase in consumer confidence and spending
- D) An increase in the price level
Show answer & explanation
Correct answer: C) An increase in consumer confidence and spending
Aggregate demand shifts rightward with increases in any of its components (consumption, investment, government spending, net exports); higher consumer confidence typically raises consumption spending, shifting AD right. A change in the price level itself causes movement along the curve, not a shift.
Question 5
A central bank raises the policy interest rate primarily to:
- A) Stimulate economic growth by encouraging borrowing
- B) Combat inflation by discouraging borrowing and spending
- C) Increase the money supply directly
- D) Reduce the value of government bonds outstanding
Show answer & explanation
Correct answer: B) Combat inflation by discouraging borrowing and spending
Raising the policy rate increases the cost of borrowing, which tends to reduce consumption and investment spending, cooling demand-pull inflationary pressure.
Question 6
Which market structure is characterized by a single seller, high barriers to entry, and price-setting power?
- A) Perfect competition
- B) Monopolistic competition
- C) Oligopoly
- D) Monopoly
Show answer & explanation
Correct answer: D) Monopoly
A monopoly consists of a single seller with significant pricing power due to high barriers to entry, in contrast to the many sellers found in perfect competition and monopolistic competition, or the few large sellers in an oligopoly.
Question 7
A monopolistically competitive firm, in the long run, tends to earn:
- A) Guaranteed positive economic profit indefinitely.
- B) Guaranteed losses indefinitely.
- C) Exactly the same profit as a pure monopolist.
- D) Zero economic profit, as free entry drives economic profit toward zero over time, though the firm may retain some pricing power from product differentiation.
Show answer & explanation
Correct answer: D) Zero economic profit, as free entry drives economic profit toward zero over time, though the firm may retain some pricing power from product differentiation.
In monopolistic competition, low barriers to entry mean that any short-run economic profits attract new entrants, competing away those profits until, in the long run, firms earn approximately zero economic profit, even though they retain some pricing power due to product differentiation.
Question 8
Which of the following best describes "fiscal policy," as distinguished from monetary policy?
- A) Decisions made exclusively by private commercial banks.
- B) International trade agreements between two countries only.
- C) Government decisions about spending and taxation used to influence the economy.
- D) Central bank decisions about interest rates and the money supply.
Show answer & explanation
Correct answer: C) Government decisions about spending and taxation used to influence the economy.
Fiscal policy refers to government spending and taxation decisions used to influence aggregate demand and economic activity, distinct from monetary policy, which is conducted by a central bank through tools like interest rates and the money supply.
Question 9
A country runs a persistent trade deficit, importing more than it exports. All else equal, this must be financed by:
- A) An automatic increase in the country's GDP.
- B) A corresponding net inflow of foreign capital (a capital/financial account surplus).
- C) A guaranteed increase in domestic interest rates.
- D) A mandatory devaluation of the domestic currency by law.
Show answer & explanation
Correct answer: B) A corresponding net inflow of foreign capital (a capital/financial account surplus).
Under the balance of payments accounting identity, a current account deficit (such as a trade deficit) must be offset by a capital/financial account surplus, meaning the deficit is financed by net capital inflows from abroad.
Question 10
Which of the following best describes the concept of "elasticity of supply"?
- A) The responsiveness of quantity supplied to a change in price.
- B) The responsiveness of quantity demanded to a change in income.
- C) The total revenue generated by a firm.
- D) The number of firms operating in a given industry.
Show answer & explanation
Correct answer: A) The responsiveness of quantity supplied to a change in price.
Elasticity of supply measures how much the quantity supplied of a good changes in response to a change in its price, analogous to how elasticity of demand measures responsiveness of quantity demanded.
Question 11
A central bank implements "quantitative easing" by purchasing large quantities of government bonds and other securities. This policy is primarily intended to:
- A) Immediately eliminate all government debt.
- B) Increase short-term interest rates sharply.
- C) Directly control the exchange rate by law.
- D) Increase the money supply and lower long-term interest rates, particularly when short-term policy rates are already near zero.
Show answer & explanation
Correct answer: D) Increase the money supply and lower long-term interest rates, particularly when short-term policy rates are already near zero.
Quantitative easing involves large-scale asset purchases by a central bank to inject liquidity into the financial system and put downward pressure on longer-term interest rates, typically used when conventional short-term rate cuts have limited room to go further (rates near the zero lower bound).
Question 12
Which of the following describes "GDP deflator"?
- A) The total value of a country's exports minus imports.
- B) A measure of unemployment in a given quarter.
- C) A measure of the overall price level of goods and services included in GDP, used to convert nominal GDP into real GDP.
- D) A tax imposed on imported goods.
Show answer & explanation
Correct answer: C) A measure of the overall price level of goods and services included in GDP, used to convert nominal GDP into real GDP.
The GDP deflator is a price index reflecting the overall level of prices for goods and services included in GDP, calculated as (Nominal GDP / Real GDP) x 100, used to adjust nominal GDP for inflation.
Question 13
A firm operating as a "price taker" in a perfectly competitive market faces a demand curve that is:
- A) Perfectly vertical, regardless of price.
- B) Identical to the market's overall demand curve in shape.
- C) Perfectly (horizontally) elastic at the prevailing market price.
- D) Downward-sloping, requiring the firm to lower price to sell more.
Show answer & explanation
Correct answer: C) Perfectly (horizontally) elastic at the prevailing market price.
A price-taking firm in perfect competition faces a horizontal (perfectly elastic) demand curve at the market price, since it can sell any quantity at that price but would sell nothing above it, given the presence of many close substitutes from other firms.
Question 14
Which of the following best describes "frictional unemployment"?
- A) Unemployment caused exclusively by a lack of any jobs existing in the economy.
- B) Unemployment that occurs only during a formal economic recession.
- C) Unemployment caused by workers permanently leaving the labor force.
- D) Unemployment resulting from the normal time it takes workers to search for and transition between jobs.
Show answer & explanation
Correct answer: D) Unemployment resulting from the normal time it takes workers to search for and transition between jobs.
Frictional unemployment reflects the normal, temporary unemployment that occurs as workers search for new jobs, change careers, or enter the workforce for the first time, distinct from structural or cyclical unemployment.
Question 15
A government imposes a tariff on imported steel. All else equal, this policy is most likely to:
- A) Have no effect on domestic steel prices or production.
- B) Automatically eliminate the trade deficit with all countries.
- C) Increase the domestic price of steel and protect domestic steel producers, while raising costs for domestic industries that use steel as an input.
- D) Decrease the domestic price of steel for all consumers.
Show answer & explanation
Correct answer: C) Increase the domestic price of steel and protect domestic steel producers, while raising costs for domestic industries that use steel as an input.
A tariff on imported steel raises the price of imported steel, making domestically produced steel relatively more competitive and protecting domestic producers, but it also raises costs for domestic firms that use steel as an input, and generally raises prices for end consumers.
Question 16
Which of the following describes "structural unemployment"?
- A) Unemployment that occurs only briefly between jobs.
- B) Unemployment caused exclusively by a temporary economic downturn.
- C) Unemployment that always resolves itself within one month.
- D) Unemployment arising from a mismatch between workers' skills and the skills demanded by available jobs, often due to technological change or shifting industries.
Show answer & explanation
Correct answer: D) Unemployment arising from a mismatch between workers' skills and the skills demanded by available jobs, often due to technological change or shifting industries.
Structural unemployment results from a fundamental mismatch between the skills workers have and the skills employers need, often driven by technological change, automation, or shifts in which industries are growing or declining, and it can persist longer than frictional unemployment.
Question 17
A central bank's primary policy rate is currently near the zero lower bound, limiting its ability to stimulate the economy through further conventional rate cuts. Which unconventional tool might the central bank use instead?
- A) Quantitative easing (large-scale asset purchases)
- B) Raising the reserve requirement for commercial banks.
- C) Increasing the policy rate further.
- D) Eliminating all forms of monetary policy entirely.
Show answer & explanation
Correct answer: A) Quantitative easing (large-scale asset purchases)
When conventional interest rate cuts are constrained by the zero lower bound, central banks may turn to unconventional tools like quantitative easing, purchasing large quantities of government bonds or other assets to inject liquidity and lower longer-term borrowing costs.
Question 18
Which of the following would most likely be classified as a "leading" economic indicator?
- A) Consumer price index for the prior month
- B) New building permits issued
- C) The unemployment rate
- D) Corporate profits reported for the prior quarter
Show answer & explanation
Correct answer: B) New building permits issued
Leading indicators, like new building permits or stock market performance, tend to change direction before the broader economy does, making them useful for anticipating future economic activity, unlike lagging indicators (like the unemployment rate) or roughly coincident indicators.
Question 19
If the price elasticity of demand for a good is −0.4, a 10% increase in price will cause quantity demanded to:
- A) Decrease by 4%
- B) Increase by 4%
- C) Decrease by 40%
- D) Decrease by 0.4%
Show answer & explanation
Correct answer: A) Decrease by 4%
Price elasticity of demand = %ΔQ / %ΔP. With elasticity = −0.4 and %ΔP = +10%: %ΔQ = −0.4 × 10% = −4%.
Question 20
Under perfect competition in the long run, a firm earns:
- A) Economic profits equal to its accounting profits
- B) Zero economic profit
- C) Positive economic profit
- D) Profit equal to its fixed costs
Show answer & explanation
Correct answer: B) Zero economic profit
In long-run equilibrium under perfect competition, free entry drives economic profits to zero. Firms earn only a normal profit (accounting profit covering opportunity costs).
Question 21
The central bank raises the policy rate. All else equal, this is most likely to:
- A) Increase inflation through a credit expansion
- B) Depreciate the domestic currency
- C) Reduce aggregate demand by increasing borrowing costs
- D) Shift the LRAS curve leftward
Show answer & explanation
Correct answer: C) Reduce aggregate demand by increasing borrowing costs
A higher policy rate raises borrowing costs, discourages consumer credit and business investment, reducing aggregate demand. This is a standard contractionary monetary policy effect.
Question 22
In the IS-LM framework, an increase in government spending (with money supply held constant) will most likely:
- A) Shift the LM curve right and lower interest rates
- B) Shift the IS curve right and raise interest rates
- C) Shift both curves right, leaving rates unchanged
- D) Have no effect if the economy is at full employment
Show answer & explanation
Correct answer: B) Shift the IS curve right and raise interest rates
Expansionary fiscal policy shifts the IS curve right. With an unchanged LM curve, equilibrium income rises and interest rates increase, partially crowding out private investment.
Question 23
Purchasing Power Parity (PPP) implies that exchange rates adjust to equalize:
- A) Real interest rates across countries
- B) Price levels of a common basket of goods across countries
- C) Current account balances across countries
- D) Nominal GDP growth rates across countries
Show answer & explanation
Correct answer: B) Price levels of a common basket of goods across countries
PPP states that exchange rates will adjust so that identical goods cost the same in different countries when expressed in a common currency, eliminating arbitrage opportunities.
Question 24
A country runs a persistent current account deficit. This is most likely financed by:
- A) A surplus in its capital and financial account
- B) An increase in its trade surplus
- C) A reduction in its official reserves
- D) Depreciation of its currency
Show answer & explanation
Correct answer: A) A surplus in its capital and financial account
The balance of payments must balance. A current account deficit (net outflow) must be offset by a capital and financial account surplus (net inflow of foreign capital).
Question 25
If the price elasticity of demand for a good is calculated as -0.4, the demand for that good is best described as:
- A) Elastic, since the absolute value of elasticity is less than 1.
- B) Perfectly elastic.
- C) Unit elastic.
- D) Inelastic, since the absolute value of elasticity is less than 1.
Show answer & explanation
Correct answer: D) Inelastic, since the absolute value of elasticity is less than 1.
When the absolute value of price elasticity of demand is less than 1, demand is described as inelastic, meaning quantity demanded responds proportionally less than the price change -- a 1% price increase would lead to a smaller than 1% decrease in quantity demanded.
Question 26
A country experiences an increase in its money supply with no corresponding increase in real output. According to the quantity theory of money, this is most likely to result in:
- A) No change in the price level under any circumstances.
- B) An automatic increase in real GDP.
- C) A proportional increase in the price level (inflation), holding velocity constant.
- D) A decrease in the price level.
Show answer & explanation
Correct answer: C) A proportional increase in the price level (inflation), holding velocity constant.
The quantity theory of money (MV = PY) implies that if velocity (V) and real output (Y) are held constant, an increase in the money supply (M) leads to a proportional increase in the price level (P) -- i.e., inflation.
Question 27
In a perfectly competitive market, a firm's profit-maximizing output level occurs where:
- A) Marginal revenue equals average variable cost.
- B) Marginal revenue equals marginal cost.
- C) Average total cost is minimized regardless of marginal cost.
- D) Total revenue equals total cost.
Show answer & explanation
Correct answer: B) Marginal revenue equals marginal cost.
In perfect competition (and more generally under standard profit maximization), a firm maximizes profit by producing at the output level where marginal revenue equals marginal cost (MR = MC); producing beyond this point means each additional unit costs more to produce than it earns in revenue.
Question 28
A central bank raises its policy interest rate primarily to:
- A) Cool down an overheating economy and control inflation by making borrowing more expensive.
- B) Directly increase government tax revenue.
- C) Immediately eliminate all unemployment.
- D) Guarantee stock market gains.
Show answer & explanation
Correct answer: A) Cool down an overheating economy and control inflation by making borrowing more expensive.
Central banks typically raise policy rates to slow economic activity and control inflation by making borrowing more costly, which tends to reduce consumption and investment spending, cooling aggregate demand.
Question 29
Which of the following best describes a negative externality?
- A) A benefit received by the buyer in a transaction.
- B) A tax paid directly by the producer to the government.
- C) A subsidy provided by the government to encourage production.
- D) A cost imposed on third parties who are not part of a transaction, such as pollution from a factory affecting nearby residents.
Show answer & explanation
Correct answer: D) A cost imposed on third parties who are not part of a transaction, such as pollution from a factory affecting nearby residents.
A negative externality occurs when a transaction imposes uncompensated costs on third parties outside the transaction, such as pollution affecting people who are not buyers or sellers in the market for the polluting good.
Question 30
A country has a comparative advantage in producing a good if it can produce that good:
- A) At a lower absolute cost than any other country.
- B) Using only domestic labor.
- C) At a lower opportunity cost relative to other goods, compared to another country.
- D) Using fewer total resources than any other country, regardless of opportunity cost.
Show answer & explanation
Correct answer: C) At a lower opportunity cost relative to other goods, compared to another country.
Comparative advantage is based on opportunity cost, not absolute cost: a country has a comparative advantage in producing a good if it can produce that good giving up less of other goods (a lower opportunity cost) than another country would have to give up.
Question 31
A consumer's demand for a particular good increases as the consumer's income rises. This good is best classified as:
- A) An inferior good, since income elasticity of demand is negative.
- B) A normal good, since income elasticity of demand is positive, meaning quantity demanded rises as income increases.
- C) A Giffen good, since demand rises as price rises.
- D) A good with zero income elasticity of demand.
Show answer & explanation
Correct answer: B) A normal good, since income elasticity of demand is positive, meaning quantity demanded rises as income increases.
A normal good is one for which quantity demanded increases as consumer income rises, corresponding to a positive income elasticity of demand. This is in contrast to an inferior good, for which quantity demanded falls as income rises (negative income elasticity).
Question 32
A factory's production process emits pollution that harms nearby residents, a cost not reflected in the factory's own production costs or the market price of its output. A government wishing to correct this negative externality could impose:
- A) A subsidy paid to the factory for each unit produced.
- B) A price ceiling on the factory's output.
- C) A Pigouvian tax on the factory's output, set to reflect the external cost imposed on third parties, which raises the factory's private cost closer to the true social cost of production.
- D) A complete ban on all industrial production nationwide.
Show answer & explanation
Correct answer: C) A Pigouvian tax on the factory's output, set to reflect the external cost imposed on third parties, which raises the factory's private cost closer to the true social cost of production.
A Pigouvian tax is designed to correct a negative externality by imposing a tax roughly equal to the external cost imposed on third parties, aligning the producer's private cost more closely with the good's true social cost and thereby discouraging overproduction relative to the socially optimal level.
Question 33
The "natural rate of unemployment" is best described as:
- A) The rate of unemployment that would exist if there were zero unemployment of any kind in the economy.
- B) The unemployment rate that persists in a stable, long-run equilibrium economy, reflecting frictional and structural unemployment, once cyclical unemployment is eliminated.
- C) A rate that is always exactly zero in a well-functioning economy.
- D) A rate that applies only during a recession.
Show answer & explanation
Correct answer: B) The unemployment rate that persists in a stable, long-run equilibrium economy, reflecting frictional and structural unemployment, once cyclical unemployment is eliminated.
The natural rate of unemployment reflects the level of unemployment consistent with a stable long-run equilibrium, comprising frictional and structural unemployment, once cyclical unemployment (associated with the business cycle) is excluded. It is sometimes referred to as the non-accelerating inflation rate of unemployment (NAIRU).
Question 34
Which phase of the business cycle is characterized by economic activity reaching its lowest point before beginning to recover, typically after a period of contraction?
- A) The trough
- B) The peak
- C) The expansion phase
- D) Stagflation
Show answer & explanation
Correct answer: A) The trough
The trough marks the lowest point of the business cycle, representing the end of a contraction and the point at which economic activity begins to turn upward into the subsequent expansion phase, as distinguished from the peak, which marks the high point before a contraction begins.
Question 35
Country A can produce both wheat and cloth more efficiently in absolute terms than Country B. According to the theory of comparative advantage, should the two countries still engage in trade?
- A) No, since Country A has no reason to trade with a less efficient producer.
- B) No, trade is only beneficial when one country has an absolute advantage in every good.
- C) Yes, but only if Country B agrees to subsidize its exports.
- D) Yes, both countries can still gain from trade if each specializes in producing the good for which it has a comparative (relative opportunity cost) advantage, even if one country has an absolute advantage in producing both goods.
Show answer & explanation
Correct answer: D) Yes, both countries can still gain from trade if each specializes in producing the good for which it has a comparative (relative opportunity cost) advantage, even if one country has an absolute advantage in producing both goods.
The principle of comparative advantage shows that mutually beneficial trade can occur based on relative (opportunity cost) advantages, even when one country holds an absolute advantage in producing every good. Each country gains by specializing in the good for which its opportunity cost of production is lowest relative to the other country.
Question 36
In an oligopolistic market, the "kinked demand curve" model suggests that a firm's demand curve is more elastic above the prevailing price and less elastic below it. This asymmetry is generally explained by the assumption that:
- A) Rival firms will always match a price increase but never match a price decrease.
- B) All firms in the industry always charge identical prices at all times by law.
- C) Rival firms will match a price decrease (to avoid losing market share) but will not match a price increase (allowing the price-raising firm to lose customers to competitors).
- D) Consumers are entirely indifferent to price differences among competing firms.
Show answer & explanation
Correct answer: C) Rival firms will match a price decrease (to avoid losing market share) but will not match a price increase (allowing the price-raising firm to lose customers to competitors).
The kinked demand curve model assumes that if an oligopolist raises its price, rivals will not follow, causing the firm to lose significant market share (elastic demand above the kink), while if the firm cuts its price, rivals will match the cut to avoid losing customers, limiting the firm's gain in market share (inelastic demand below the kink). This asymmetry helps explain price rigidity commonly observed in oligopolies.
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